Post by Nursing Board 101 on Aug 18, 2010 12:53:35 GMT -5
1. This STD is characterized by greenish yellow, frothy musty odorous vaginal discharge accompanied with vaginal itchiness and painful urination?
a. Trichomoniasis
b. Chancroid
c. Moniliasis
d. Chlamydia
Ans. A. Trichomoniasis
2. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to detect and cure TB. The primary element of DOTS is
a. Health workers counsel and observe their patients swallow each anti-TB medication and monitor progress until cures
b. Regular drug supply
c. Political will in terms of manpower and funding
d. Sputum microscopy services
Ans. A. The main strategy of the NTP is Directly Observed Treatment, short course (DOTS). This is a comprehensive strategy to control TB which primary health services around the world are using in the detection and cure TB
3. What is the mode of transmission of Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
a. Fecal-oral c. Airborne, droplet
b. Direct contact d. Blood borne
Ans. C. (Martinez, D. Intensive Final Coaching Primary Health Care, Legazpi City: A1 Review Center, ‘06, question 36)
4. Standard examination in detecting PTb:
a. X-ray c. Ultrasound
b. Sputum Exam d. Tuberculin Test
Ans. B.
5. In Catergory II of the TB treatment regimen all are prescribed BUT one:
a. Relapse case
b. New pulmonary smear (+) cases
c. Failure cases
d. Other (smear +)
Ans. B. Category I: Prescribed for a) new pulmonary smear (+) cases, b) new seriously ill pulmonary smear(-) cases with extensive parenchymal involvement and c.) new severely ill extrapulmonary TB cases; Category II: Prescribed for a.) failure cases, b) relapse cases; c) RAD (smear +), and OTHER (smear+); Category III Prescribed for a.) new smear (-) but with minimal pulmonary TB on radiography as confirmed by medical officer and b) new extrapulmonary TB (not serious). (
6. Malaria can be prevented by the following EXCEPT:
a. Avoiding outdoor night time activities
b. Use of mosquito repellants
c. Planting of herbal plants which can be mosquito repellants
d. Spending leisure time in the forest
Ans. D. Preventive activities against malaria include all but not limited to the following:
1. Avoid going outdoor between 9pm to 3 am , the peak biting hours of female anopheles mosquitoes
2. Prophylaxis: taking chloroquine every week starting one to two weeks before traveling
3. Using mosquito net or curtain treatment by soaking the mosquito net in insecticidal solution and allow to dry before using
4. House spraying of insecticide inside the house
5. Wearing clothes that cover arms and legs at night
7. During this stage the H fever is said to cause severe abdominal pain, vomiting and frequent bleeding from GI tract:
a. Invasive Stage c. Convalescent Stage
b. Toxic stage d. Febrile Stage
Ans. B. Toxic Stage
A. Invasive stage or febrile stage starts abruptly as high fever, abdominal pain and headache; later flushing which maybe accompanied by vomiting and epistaxis; B. Toxic or hemorrhagic stage is the time where severe abdominal pain, vomiting and frequent bleeding from the GI is observed; C. Convalescent or recovery stage most of the vital signs are stable.
8. What is the etiologic agent of Diptheria?
a. Klebs-Loffler bacillus
b. Bordet Gengou Bacillus
c. Vibrio El Tor
d. Filterable virus
Ans. A. Klebs-Loffler bacillus
9. An example of this route of transmission is the dust particles with infectious agent and residue of evaporated droplets that remain suspended in the air:
a. Vectorborne transmission c. Contact transmission
b. Airborne transmission d. Droplet transmission
Ans. Ans. B. Airborne transmission
A. Vectorborne transmission examples are flies, ticks, mosquitoes and flies; B. Airborne transmission includes droplet nuclei, dust particles with infectious agent and organisms shed into the environment from the skin, hair or perineal area; C. Contact transmission includes direct contact, indirect contact and droplet contact; D. there’s no such thing as droplet transmission only droplet contact.
10. This chain of infection allows the microorganisms to move from reservoir to host:
a. Portal of Exit c. Portal of entry
b. infectious agent d. susceptible host
Ans. A. Portal of exit
A. Some examples of movement from reservoir to host are excretions, secretions and skin droplets; B. The common site for the portal of entry is mucous membranes, GI tract and non-intact skin; C. Examples of infectious agents are bacteria and virus; D. susceptible host are the immunosuppressed patient, fatigued, elderly and other hospitalized patient.
11. Inflammatory processes provided by the WBC (leukocytes), whose main purpose is to limit the effect of harmful bacteria or injury by destroying or neutralizing the organism, and by limiting its spread throughout the body:
a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Fourth line of defense
Ans. B. Second line of defense
A. First line of defense include the skin and mucus membrane; B. Second line of defense involves leukocytes; C. Third line of defense include the antibodies
12. The immune response is considered to be:
a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Fourth line of defense
Ans. C. Third line of defense
A. First line of defense include the skin and mucus membrane; B. Second line of defense involves leukocytes; C. Third line of defense includes the antibodies.
13. Nurse Angelika believed that the complete destruction of all microorganisms, including the spores is:
a. Disinfection c. Cleaning
b. Sterilization d. all of these
Ans. B. Sterilization
14. When asked about the risk of transmitting agents through large particles (5 micrometer or more) Crizelda refer this type of precaution to her clients as:
a. Airborne precaution
b. Contact precaution
c. Standard precaution
d. Droplet precaution
Ans. D. Droplet precaution
15. It is an upper respiratory condition characterized by escalating fever (peaks 3-5 days), conjunctivitis and coryza:
a. Measles b. German Measles c. chicken pox d. Varicella
Ans. Measles
16. A day biting female mosquito that breeds in household or standing clean water:
a. Female anopheles
b. Male anopheles
c. Aedes aegypti
d. None of these
Ans. C. Aedes aegypti
17. The following are the major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines, EXCEPT:
a. Trichuris trichiura c. Hookworm
b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. none of these
Ans. D. All of them are the three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections
18. What is the period of communicability of the epidemic parotitis?
a. Begins before the glands are swollen and presumed to last as long as localized glandular swelling remains
b. Begins after the glands are swollen especially when the localized glandular swelling remains
c. Begins before the glands are swollen and after the glands are swollen even when the glandular swelling is not observed.
d. except c
Ans. A. Begins before the glands are swollen and presumed to last as long as localized glandular swelling remains
19. Which his TRUE regarding Filariasis?
a. Microfilarie rate increases with age and then levels off during the acute stage
b. Men have higher micronlariae rate than women
c. During the chronic stage the disease develops 2-5 years from the onset of attack
d. Hydrocoele is evident in men during the acute stage
A. It is not during the acute stage but during the asymptomatic stage: B True that men have higher micronlariae rate than women; C. The disease develops from 10-15 years from the onset of attack; D. It is during the chronic stage when hydrocoele will be noted.
20. Which is FALSE about Tuberculosis?
a. The most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is the first 6-12 months after infection
b. The risk of developing the disease is highest in children under 3 years old.
c. The degree of communicability depends on the virulence of the bacilli, adequacy of ventilation with no direct exposure of bacilli to the sun or UV light
d. Susceptibility of the disease is markedly increased in those with HIV infection and other forms of immunosuppression
Ans. C.
All are true except C because the degree of communicability always involves exposure of the bacilli to the sun or UV light.
21. Which of the following tetanus immunization is given to a mother to prevent from a neonatal tetanus and provide 10 years protection for the mother?
a. TT1
b.TT2
c. TT3
d. TT4
Ans. C. Schedule of TT immunization:
VACCINATION SCHEDULE PROTECTION DURATION OF PROTECTION
TT1 As early as possible during pregnancy 80%
TT2 4 weeks after TT1 80% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 3 year protection to the mother
TT3 6 months after TT2 90% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 5 year protection to the mother
TT4 1 year after TT3 99% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 10 year protection to the mother
TT5 1 year after TT4 99% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides lifetime protection to the mother.
22. Which of the following vaccines is not recommended by IM injection?
a. Measles vaccine c. Hepa B vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid d. DPT
Ans. A. Measles vaccine
23. The following are vaccines which are less sensitive to heat:
a. oral polio, DPT
b. Measles, Hep B
c. BCG, TT
d. BCG, oral polio
Ans. C. BCG and TT
Most sensitive to heat: oral polio and measles; least sensitive to heat: DPT, Hep B, BCG, TT
24. OPV should be stored in a freezer with a temperature of:
a. 2-8 degrees C
b. -15 to -25 degrees C
c. -2 to -8 degrees C
d. none of these
Ans. B. -15 to -25 degrees C
25. Hepa B is given at birth with 6 weeks interval from the 1st dose to 2nd dose, 8 weeks interval from the 2nd to 3rd dose. It is given intramuscularly in the:
a. outer part of upper arm
b. gluteus maximus
c. vastus lateralis
d. deltoid region
Ans. C. vastus lateralis
26. It is the principle practiced in order to assure that all vaccines are utilized before its due date:
a. “First expiry and first out”
b. “First used and first contained”
c. “First expiry and last out”
d. “First used and last contained”
Ans. A. First expiry and First out”
27. When reconstituting the freeze dried BCG vaccine the nurse must always keep the diluents in the room temperature by sustaining with the BCG vaccine ampules in the clinic table:
a. TRUE b. FALSE c. TRUE in Hep B and DPT d. except A
Ans. A. FALSE
The BCG vaccine must always be kept in cold temperature and sustaining it in the refrigerator or vaccine carrier.
28. What is the classification of disease when the level of management is urgent referral in hospital?
a. mild
b. moderate
c. severe
d. most severe
Ans. C. Severe.
29. What is the color presentation to children whose level of management is home care.
a. yellow
b. red
c. green
d. pink
Ans. C. Green. (
30. The following BUT one is part of the danger signs that needs to be checked in assessing the child using the integrated case management process?
a. vomits everything
b. convulsions
c. unable to drink/breastfeed
d. difficulty breathing
Ans. D. Difficulty of breathing is part of the main symptoms that needs to be assessed not the danger signs. The missing danger sign is abnormality sleepy or difficult to awaken.